Past Questions

सैनिक स्वास्थ्य, प्रा.अम. मेडिकल – २०८३/०६/०१

Ajnabee Khadka
September 18, 2026
243

सैनिक स्वास्थ्य, प्रा.अम. मेडिकल – २०८३/०६/०१

Military Health, Pvt. Am. Medical – 2083/06/01

1. Which of the following is the most effective immediate first aid method to control severe external bleeding?

(A) Applying a proximal tourniquet
(B) Applying ice around bleeding area
(C) Using pressure points on the artery
(D) Applying direct pressure to the wound ✓

2. What is the priority intervention in the first 24-48 hours for a patient with a major burn injury?

(A) Wound cleansing and management
(B) Pain management
(C) Fluid resuscitation ✓
(D) Infection prevention

3. Which of the following is considered a "Red Flag" sign of a serious spinal injury?

(A) Localized neck pain
(B) Pain and tingling in the fingers
(C) Loss of bladder or bowel control ✓
(D) Pain and tenderness in the back

4. Best position for patient with hemorrhagic shock is

(A) sitting up right
(B) supine with leg elevated ✓
(C) prone position
(D) standing position

5. What should you do if the chest is injured by bullet?

(A) Leave it open
(B) Apply an airtight dressing ✓
(C) Press very hard continuously
(D) Give water to drink

6. Where should rabies immunoglobulin be administered?

(A) Only intramuscular in gluteal muscle
(B) Around and into the wound as much as possible ✓
(C) Only intravenously
(D) Only subcutaneously

7. The first step of snake bite management is

(A) apply a tight tourniquet
(B) cut and suck the wound
(C) reassure and immobilize the affected part ✓
(D) provide antibiotics

8. A nurse is performing CPR and notices chest is not rising during ventilation. What should be done?

(A) Increase compression rate
(B) Reposition the patient to lateral position
(C) Give forceful breaths
(D) Reposition the head and ensure airway is open ✓

9. Upon arrival of mass casualties after an ambush, which of the following category should be prioritized under red triage?

(A) Minor abrasion patient
(B) Patient with controlled bleeding and alert
(C) Patient with airway obstruction and respiratory distress ✓
(D) Patient with multiple closed fracture in the lower limb

10. A patient has cut injury in the forearm and profuse bleeding. What should the nurse do first?

(A) Apply a tourniquet
(B) Clean the wound with antiseptic
(C) Apply direct pressure with sterile dressing ✓
(D) Elevate the limb

11. Which of the following is commonly used as an antiseptic for skin disinfection before injections?

(A) Hydrogen peroxide
(B) Alcohol (70% ethanol) ✓
(C) Formaldehyde
(D) Phenol

12. Which of the following is a sign of fluid overload?

(A) Flat neck vein
(B) Hypertension
(C) Hypotension
(D) Crackles/rales in the lungs ✓

13. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

(A) AB+
(B) A+
(C) O- ✓
(D) B+

14. Which of the following antimalarial drug is relatively safe in pregnant mother?

(A) Doxycycline
(B) Primaquine ✓
(C) Quinine
(D) Sulphadoxine

15. The purpose of labeling the medicine properly is to

(A) make look attractive
(B) avoid medication error ✓
(C) increase cost
(D) delay administration

16. Which drug is used for radical cure of plasmodium vivax malaria?

(A) Quinine
(B) Artemisinin
(C) Primaquine ✓
(D) Mefloquine

17. The study of how the body interacts with a drugs over time is

(A) Pharmacodynamics
(B) Pharmacokinetics ✓
(C) Pharmacogenetics
(D) Pharmacotherapeutics

18. Which of the following is the best prevention for fecal borne disease?

(A) Vaccination only
(B) Handwashing with soap and water ✓
(C) Antibiotics
(D) Taking bath daily

19. The terms community refer to

(A) hospital staff
(B) group of people timing in isolation
(C) group of people sharing common interest ✓
(D) one urban population

20. Immunization helps to

(A) cure disease
(B) prevent disease ✓
(C) diagnose disease
(D) increase appetite

21. Which of the following opportunistic infections is the common cause of fever and night sweat in patient with advance HIV?

(A) Tuberculosis ✓
(B) Pneumocystis pneumonia
(C) Candidiasis
(D) Toxoplasmosis

22. What is the primary purpose of the TT vaccine?

(A) To treat an active infection of tetanus
(B) To stimulate active immunity against tetanus ✓
(C) To provide passive immunity against tetanus
(D) To administer tetanus immunoglobulin against tetanus

23. Which type of immunity is develop after a person recovers from a natural infection?

(A) Artificial active immunity
(B) Artificial passive immunity
(C) Natural active immunity ✓
(D) Natural passive immunity

24. Community health primarily focus on

(A) treatment of community people
(B) valuation to community people
(C) health status of a population as a whole ✓
(D) nutrition of people

25. What is the recommended temperature range for vaccine storage in a refrigerator?

(A) -2 to -8°C
(B) 2 to 8°C ✓
(C) 8 to 12°C
(D) 12 to 20°C

26. Which of the following diseases is commonly spread by direct contact?

(A) Scabies ✓
(B) Cholera
(C) Typhoid
(D) Malaria

27. Measles can be prevented in a population scale through

(A) use of face masks
(B) sanitizer gels
(C) immunization/vaccination ✓
(D) use of oral rehydration salts

28. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus transmitted mainly through contaminated water and food?

(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Hepatitis A ✓
(C) Hepatitis B
(D) Hepatitis C

29. Which statement about passive immunity is correct?

(A) It develops immunity slowly after vaccination
(B) It involves antibody production by the body
(C) It provides immediate but temporary protection ✓
(D) It always lasts lifelong

30. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

(A) Measles vaccine ✓
(B) Tetanus toxoid
(C) Rabies vaccine
(D) Inactivated polio vaccine

31. Before administrating the medicine the nurse should first

(A) crush the tablet for all patient
(B) check the prescription ✓
(C) give water to patient
(D) take vital sign

32. What is the most common complication of urinary catheterization?

(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Concentration of urine
(C) Back pain
(D) Urinary tract infection ✓

33. Which of the following is basic physiological need of a patient?

(A) Love
(B) Oxygen ✓
(C) Self-esteem
(D) Respect

34. While caring for the client who is receiving an IV infusion, what should the nurse do first if the I/V infusion infiltrates?

(A) Elevate IV site
(B) Discontinue the IV infusion ✓
(C) Attempt to flush the tubing
(D) Apply a warm, moist compress

35. When dressing a surgical wound with drain, how should the health worker/nurse clean the wound?

(A) Clean the drain site first
(B) Clean around the wound first
(C) Clean the incision first then the drain site ✓
(D) Clean the incision and drain simultaneously

36. A patient with a urinary catheter reports discomforts in the bladder and urethra. What should the health worker/nurse do first?

(A) Milk the tube gently
(B) Inform to doctor immediately
(C) Check the patency of the catheter ✓
(D) Irrigate the catheter with prescribe solution

37. Which of the following IV solution is consider isotonic solution?

(A) 0.45% normal saline
(B) 0.3% normal saline
(C) 0.9% normal saline ✓
(D) 5% dextrose saline

38. What clinical indicators should a nurse/health worker identified when assessing a client with pyrexia?

(A) Increased blood pressure
(B) Dyspnoea
(C) Tachycardia ✓
(D) Tachypnea

39. Which of the following action best satisfies a patient safety and security needs?

(A) Allowing family to visit to patient
(B) Keeping the side rails up ✓
(C) Providing a warm blanket
(D) Change the bedding of patient

40. While giving oxygen through a mask, the nurse notices dryness of the patient's nose and mouth. What should be done?

(A) Stop oxygen
(B) Add humidification ✓
(C) Increase flow rate
(D) Ignore

41. A patient with hemorrhoids is advised a Sitz bath. What is the correct nursing action?

(A) Use cold water only
(B) Use warm water and ensure comfort ✓
(C) Use hot boiling water
(D) Avoid water

42. While giving an enema, the patient complains of abdominal cramps. What should the nurse do?

(A) Increase flow rate
(B) Stop procedure temporarily ✓
(C) Ignore the complaint
(D) Remove all fluid quickly

43. Bed making is important for

(A) decoration
(B) comfort and hygiene ✓
(C) saving time
(D) hospital rules

44. The nurse's role includes

(A) diagnosis only
(B) care only
(C) care, prevention and promotion ✓
(D) surgery

45. Paracetamol overdose affects the organ

(A) heart
(B) brain
(C) lungs
(D) liver ✓

46. The most common symptom of hypoglycemia is

(A) polyuria and polydipsia
(B) polyuria and blurred vision
(C) blurred vision and weight loss
(D) sweating, shakiness and confusion ✓

47. The most effective nursing intervention for prevention of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) postoperatively is...

(A) strict bed rest for 24 hours ✓
(B) early ambulation
(C) administering oral anticoagulants to all patients
(D) keeping leg elevation continuously

48. During the removal of an old dressing adhered to the wound, the nurse should

(A) pull firmly to remove dried exudate
(B) soak the dressing with normal saline before removal ✓
(C) use alcohol to loosen the adhesive
(D) cut the dressing off with sterile scissors

49. Infectious waste mainly includes

(A) waste foods
(B) blood stained gauze and cottons ✓
(C) plastics
(D) papers

50. The first priority in immediate post-operative care is to ensure

(A) airway patency ✓
(B) pain relief
(C) wound dressing
(D) patient transfer

51. The most suitable position for giving an enema to an adult is

(A) supine
(B) prone
(C) left lateral (sims' position) ✓
(D) trendelenburg

52. What does pulse oximeter primarily measure?

(A) PaO₂
(B) Oxygen saturation ✓
(C) PaCO₂
(D) Respiratory depth

53. Which of the following is the most common site for pressure sore in bedridden patients?

(A) Abdomen
(B) Chest
(C) Thigh
(D) Sacrum ✓

54. Which of the following best describes "basic needs" in the context of human health and nursing care?

(A) Essential requirement for survival and wellbeing ✓
(B) Patient's desire to improve comfort
(C) Hospital policies for free healthcare
(D) Immediate treatment during emergency situations

55. Before insertion, the length of the tube is measured from

(A) nose to ear to xiphoid process ✓
(B) ear to nose to xiphoid process
(C) nose to ear to abdomen
(D) ear to nose to abdomen

56. The process of sterilizing infected waste using steam is called

(A) incineration
(B) autoclaving ✓
(C) boiling
(D) filtration

57. Convert 20°C into Fahrenheit is ...

(A) 64°F ✓
(B) 66°F
(C) 68°F
(D) 70°F

58. Blister formation indicates which stage of pressure sore?

(A) Stage I
(B) Stage II ✓
(C) Stage III
(D) Stage IV

59. Discharge planning should begin

(A) at the time of discharge only
(B) at the time of admission ✓
(C) after treatment ends
(D) on the day of discharge

60. What is the primary purpose of a sandbag?

(A) To provide support to limbs ✓
(B) To reduce fever
(C) To treat infections
(D) To measure blood pressure

61. When administering a bolus feeding through a Ryle's tube, it is important to

(A) administer the feeding rapidly
(B) elevate the head of the bed ✓
(C) leave the patient flat
(D) disconnect the tube immediately after feeding

62. A patient experiences difficulty breathing and swelling after receiving a medication. What is the most likely reaction?

(A) Normal side effect
(B) Allergic reaction (Anaphylaxis) ✓
(C) Therapeutic response
(D) Placebo effect

63. An infected patient has chills and begins shivering. The best intervention is to

(A) apply iced alcohol sponge
(B) provide increased cool liquids
(C) provide additional bedclothes
(D) provide increased ventilation ✓

64. Hospital acquired infection are also known as

(A) Nosocomial infection ✓
(B) Primary infection
(C) Iatrogenic infection
(D) Idiopathic infection

65. Postural drainage to relieve respiratory congestion should take place

(A) before meal ✓
(B) after meal
(C) at the nurse's conveniences
(D) at the patient's conveniences

66. A patient is brought after a road traffic accident with suspected spinal injury. What is the nurse's first priority?

(A) Turn the patient to side
(B) Immobilize the spine ✓
(C) Elevate the lower limbs
(D) Elevate the head

67. Which hormone produced by the kidney helps in red blood cell production?

(A) Insulin
(B) Erythropoietin ✓
(C) Thyroxine
(D) Cortisol

68. The main function of bile is to

(A) digest proteins
(B) emulsify fats ✓
(C) absorb vitamins
(D) produce enzymes

69. Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

(A) Right atrium
(B) Right ventricle
(C) Left atrium
(D) Left ventricle ✓

70. Pericardium is a membrane that

(A) encloses the heart ✓
(B) filters oxygenated blood
(C) is located inside the veins
(D) surrounds the aorta only

71. Which blood vessels are responsible for exchange of gases and nutrients?

(A) Arteries
(B) Veins
(C) Capillaries ✓
(D) Aorta

72. Which of the following is responsible for majority of tubular reabsorption in the nephron?

(A) Proximal convoluted tubule ✓
(B) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Loop of henle
(D) Collecting tubule

73. The hormone responsible for sperm production is

(A) estrogen
(B) testosterone ✓
(C) progesterone
(D) oxytocin

74. Which of the following are known as agranulocytes leukocytes?

(A) Monocytes and lymphocytes ✓
(B) Eosinophils and basophils
(C) Neutrophils and lymphocytes
(D) Neutrophils and basophils

75. Which part of the long bone is responsible for its longitudinal growth?

(A) Diaphysis
(B) Epiphysis
(C) Epiphyseal plate ✓
(D) Periosteum

सैनिक स्वास्थ्य, प्रा.अम. मेडिकल – २०८३/०६/०१

सैनिक स्वास्थ्य, प्रा.अम. मेडिकल – २०८३/०६/०१

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